None normally used in singular form

From the mailbox, a question on the example of

No book of any I want.
I don't want any books.

the lesson in indefinite of adjectives:

Online 1, must "book" plural according to translation of "books" in the second line?

This is one of those cases where the numbers really don't match Spanish and English. It is probably better remembered here is none (as well as the feminine form, no) are almost always used in the singular form. But none (or the noun referred to none when used as an adjective) can often be translated into English as either singular or plural without any change in its meaning.

Here is a sentence as an example: he has the no woman can resist. In English, either "Has that no woman can resist" and "Have you no woman can resist" essentially mean the same thing. But Spanish, would almost always use the singular form. Similarly, a phrase such as "Not had any problems" could be translated as "I don't have no problem" or "I do not I have had no problem," with any difference of meaning be very mild. But "none problems" is almost never used.

It would be a grammatical crime to use the plural Spanish phrase as these two, and indeed sometimes hear similar constructions. But as it is used as a general rule, the main timeline is none or none when reference is made to names that are grammatically plural although singular in meaning:

None scissors I see no. I don't see any none glasses of need of scissors.No. I don't need any glasses.No I have any desire to study. I have no desire to study.

And by the way, there is a reason that many phrases about of using both non- and none: double negatives are common in Spanish. In fact, you are obliged in many cases where they would be poorly in English.

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